[Mesorah] "Teven" at the end of a pasuk

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Why Ashkenazim cute "Morid HaGashem", and the Sephardim - Morid HaGeshem.
May be more difficult:  Nosach Sefard -why:Vethen Tal U'Matar, ("Tal" - Patach)butMorid HaTol ("Tol" - Kamatz) but Morid HaGeshem (Segol, and not Kamatz)

Aaron201-414-7190

-----Original Message-----
From: Akiva Miller via Mesorah <mesorah at lists.aishdas.org>
To: mesorah at aishdas.org
Sent: Thu, Dec 23, 2021 10:02 pm
Subject: [Mesorah] "Teven" at the end of a pasuk

I was surprised to find that the word "teven" occurs at the end of several pesukim (Shmos 5:7, 5:10, 5:12, 5:13) *without* changing its pronunciation to "taven".
I was *going* to ask this learned chevra if there might be other such words which remain segol-segol even at the end of a pasuk, but I was surprised at how quickly the example of "melech" came to my mind. Bereshis 14:17 and 49:20, Esther 1:5 and 7:4, are just a few examples of "melech" at the end of a pasuk. Looking through my concordance, I was unable to find any cases where it changed to "malech".
So I'm not going to ask why "teven" and "melech" are exceptions to the rule. Rather, I am learning the lesson that Rabbi Mandel has told us so many times: There are no iron-clad rules, only *general* rules, which were born to have exceptions. And as such, the exceptions should not be so surprising. The same way that the sh'va of "shtayim" ("two") is a sh'va nach despite being on the first letter, so too do the segols of "melech" remain so despite being in the last word.
Why? Because that's how languages work, that's why.
To reiterate: I am not asking any questions here. I'm simply bringing it to the attention of the chevra in case anyone else didn't notice it, or wants to comment.
Good Shabbos to allAkiva Miller_______________________________________________
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