[Mesorah] Fw: Paane'ach

[Mandel, Seth via Mesorah]

Rabbi Dr. Seth Mandel
Rabbinic Coordinator
The Orthodox Union

Voice (212) 613-8330     Fax (212) 613-0718     e-mail mandels at ou.org


________________________________
From: Mandel, Seth
Sent: Sunday, March 19, 2017 1:02 PM
To: Akiva Miller
Subject: Re: [Mesorah] Paane'ach


Such a root appears NOWHERE in the entire T'NaKh nor in any other Semitic language.

Its presence in the siddur would not be surprising, since the m'forshim interpreted it, and the siddur uses all sorts of non-Biblical words common in L'shon Chazal.

Given the fact that Tzafnat Pa'aneach has a clear Egyptian meaning, it seems unreasonable to posit that even Tzafnat is Hebrew, but rather that the entire phrase is Egyptian.  I would make no sense to use one Hebrew form (the form of Tzafnat is not known either for a Hebrew noun) followed by an Egyptian word.

There are Assyrian loan words in Biblical Hebrew.  I do not see the difficulty in admitting that something labeled as Egyptian was indeed Egyptian.

The question is greater regarding the name Pinchas.  It is not labeled as an Egyptian name, and yet it is clearly not Semitic, and there was an Egyptian name Pin'ches.


Rabbi Dr. Seth Mandel
Rabbinic Coordinator
The Orthodox Union

Voice (212) 613-8330     Fax (212) 613-0718     e-mail mandels at ou.org


________________________________
From: Mesorah <mesorah-bounces at lists.aishdas.org> on behalf of Akiva Miller via Mesorah <mesorah at lists.aishdas.org>
Sent: Sunday, March 19, 2017 12:26 PM
To: mesorah at aishdas.org
Subject: [Mesorah] Paane'ach

I'm interested in the 4-letter root peh, ayin, nun, ches. I had thought this was an Egyptian word, since (according to my concordance) it appears in Tanach only once, in the name that Paroh gave to Yosef.

But I recently realized that it also appears in the Nusach Sefard version of Nishmas, in the phrase, "v'ham'faane'ach ne'elamim". And yesterday, I saw it twice in the same paragraph (Kip'on, right after Mechayeh Hameisim) of Yotzros for Parshas Parah.

Does it appear anywhere else? Is there any evidence that it is an Egyptian word that was accepted into Hebrew? Or can one argue that it has always been Hebrew, and (like Tzafnas seems to be) is just the Hebrew translation of whatever name it was that Paroh gave to Yosef?

Just wondering.

advTHANKSance
Akiva Miller
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