[Mesorah] Leining issue

[Michael Poppers]

If the "patach (or kamatz)" is due to an implicit *heih hay'diah* (definite
article), reading w/ a *shva* would represent a change in meaning.  Whether
the *tzibbur* (or someone on its behalf) mandates going back and reading
the word correctly depends on the *tzibbur* and/or who is reading -- there
is a spectrum of *p'saq* on the subject.

On Sun, Oct 20, 2019 at 2:52 PM Goldie Kramer via Mesorah <
mesorah at lists.aishdas.org> wrote:

> If the בעל קריאה puts a sh'vah under a Beis at the beginning of a word
> instead of a patach (or kamatz), or vice versa, does it change the meaning
> enough to mandate making him re-read it? TIA.
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