[Mesorah] B'nei Aharon hanotarim

[Sholom Simon via Mesorah]

Re: tipcha not being pausal:

Somebody here -- I think it may have been R M 
Poppers? -- pointed out to me instances where a 
tipcha divided up two words in smichus form.

-- Sholom

At 03:37 PM 4/24/2017, Danny Levy via Mesorah wrote:
>Did Perlman explain why 'lemor' is often 
>connected to the previous word contrary to the syntax?
>
>Indeed it appears to be the case in about half 
>of the instances of 'lemor' but this one stands 
>out as an extreme example in which the adjective 
>is disconnected from the noun it describes in 
>order to connect it to 'lemor' instead.
>
>Danny Levy
>
>2017-04-23 22:08 GMT+03:00 Dov Bloom 
><<mailto:dovbbb at gmail.com>dovbbb at gmail.com>:
>1. I am pretty sure that the tipha on the word 
>hanotarim is not a real mafsik (pausal trop) but 
>is there because of the 2 word unit 'hanotarim l'amor"
>2. Mori veRabi in the field of biblical 
>accentuation (teamim, trop) Mechel Perlman wrote 
>a lot about the way teamim treat the word 
>l'amor. IIRC the word is usually conjucted to 
>other preceeding words (as in the ubiquitous 
>vaydaber Hashem el-Moshe l'amor , the mafsik 
>on the second word conjuncts  {el-Moshe l'amor}  together.Â
>We would expect by syntax:{vaydaber Hashem 
>el-Moshe} : (semicolon) Â l'amor. But the teamim 
>don't do it the way we would have expected.Â
>Dov Bloom
>
>On Apr 23, 2017 9:47 PM, "Danny Levy via 
>Mesorah" <<mailto:mesorah at lists.aishdas.org>mesorah at lists.aishdas.org> wrote:
>Can anybody explain or venture a guess why the 
>Ba'alei Hamesorah fixed the te'amim of the 
>second half of Vayikra 10:16 - vayiktzof 
>al-Elazar v'al-Itamar b'nei Aharon hanotarim 
>lemor - to be t'lisha g'dola, mahpach, pashta, 
>munach, zakef, tipcha, sof pasuk, such that 
>'hanotarim' is joined to the following 'lemor' 
>rather than to the preceeding 'bnei Aharon'?
>
>Wouldn't t'lisha k'tana, kadma v'azla, darga, 
>t'vir, tipcha, sof pasuk fit the p'shat better?
>
>Danny Levy
>
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