[Mesorah] B'nei Aharon hanotarim

[Danny Levy via Mesorah]

Did Perlman explain why 'lemor' is often connected to the previous word
contrary to the syntax?

Indeed it appears to be the case in about half of the instances of 'lemor'
but this one stands out as an extreme example in which the adjective is
disconnected from the noun it describes in order to connect it to 'lemor'
instead.

Danny Levy

2017-04-23 22:08 GMT+03:00 Dov Bloom <dovbbb at gmail.com>:

> 1. I am pretty sure that the tipha on the word hanotarim is not a real
> mafsik (pausal trop) but is there because of the 2 word unit 'hanotarim
> l'amor"
> 2. Mori veRabi in the field of biblical accentuation (teamim, trop) Mechel
> Perlman wrote a lot about the way teamim treat the word l'amor. IIRC the
> word is usually conjucted to other preceeding words (as in the ubiquitous
> vaydaber Hashem el-Moshe l'amor , the mafsik on the second word conjuncts
>  {el-Moshe l'amor}  together.
> We would expect by syntax:{vaydaber Hashem el-Moshe} : (semicolon)  l'amor.
> But the teamim don't do it the way we would have expected.
> Dov Bloom
>
> On Apr 23, 2017 9:47 PM, "Danny Levy via Mesorah" <
> mesorah at lists.aishdas.org> wrote:
>
>> Can anybody explain or venture a guess why the Ba'alei Hamesorah fixed
>> the te'amim of the second half of Vayikra 10:16 - vayiktzof
>> al-Elazar v'al-Itamar b'nei Aharon hanotarim lemor - to be t'lisha g'dola,
>> mahpach, pashta, munach, zakef, tipcha, sof pasuk, such that 'hanotarim' is
>> joined to the following 'lemor' rather than to the preceeding 'bnei Aharon'?
>>
>> Wouldn't t'lisha k'tana, kadma v'azla, darga, t'vir, tipcha, sof pasuk
>> fit the p'shat better?
>>
>> Danny Levy
>>
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