[Mesorah] darga / tevir in Vayikra 3:2

[Sholom Simon via Mesorah]

A belated follow up to RDC's explanation here:

In sunnary, I asked the following:

I'm trying to figure out: in a pasuk such as 3:2, which reads, in part:

"v'zarko b'nei aharon ha'kohanim es-hadam al-hamizbeach"

why the words "ha'kohanim es-hadam" are connected with a darga/tevir

I would have thought that "b'nei aharon hakohanim" would be one 
sub-group -- i.e., a mafsik on hakohanim.

I'm clearly missing something, because we see essentially the same 
thing in 3:8 and 3:11

RDC answered:

>The telisha ketana on "benei" and the kadma on "Aharon" are also 
>"mesharetim," just like the darga on "hakohanim."  So the phrase 
>that's being connected as one subgroup is "benei Aharon hakohanim es 
>hadam," which is perhaps a bit easier to understand than just 
>"hakohanim es hadam" being such a subgroup.

That helps me understand it.  But it still leaves one question 
unanswered:  still: why not separate b'nei Aharon hakohanim from hadam?

Off-line, R Seth Mandel answered that one:

For that you have to step back and consider the options. The whole 
clause ends with a kesar, and so the subsection, ending with saviv, 
ends with a melekh, the tip'cha under hamizbeach.  The next section 
ends therefore with a mishneh, the t'vir under hadam.

The only mafsiq lower than a mishneh is a shalish, like the pazer 
under vzar'qu.  If there were to be two shalishim in a row, the first 
one would be the major break and the second subsidiary to it.  Such 
is not the case; the V in VSO structure is not any more of a break 
than the S or the O.  So you would need something subsidiary to a 
shalish.  There ain't no such something that is a mafsiq.  The only 
subsidiary to a shalish is a m'sharet.  Which is what there is.  QED.

RSM, here, highlights a rule about trop that I had forgotten.  When 
there are two breaks of the same level, the second is subsidiary to 
the first one.

Thanks, all!

-- Sholom
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