[Mesorah] [somewhat off-topic] ir Tziyon t'male

[Ben Kandel]

I have a more basic question:  Why should we think that it's important for
the author of the zemirah to have the two verbs in the same binyan,
especially if it changes the meaning of the word?  The word "timale/t'male"
is supposed to rhyme with na-aleh in the next line (I assume), so why
should we think that its form would be influenced by the word "yibaneh"?

Kol tuv

Ben

On Mon, Nov 14, 2011 at 8:37 AM, D&E-H Bannett <dbnet at zahav.net.il> wrote:

> R' Mazuz's siddur "Ish Matzliach" has timalei (authorized siddur, not
> copies).  I suspect that this is the reference that you have already
> received from R' Hayyim Obadyah so I'm probably not adding anything.
>
> Both Seligmann Baer and the Mateh Yehuda (peirush on zemirot by R' Yehuda
> Oppenheim in "Shlosha S'farim Niftahim", zemirot with peirushim) refer one
> to Y'shayahu 33:5 where it says milei Tzion tz'daka (piel).
>
>
> bivrakha,
>
> David
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