[Mesorah] trope question on Bereshis 1:5 & 1:10

[Noah Witty]

Just to clarify:

For the most part, Biblical Ivrit will not tolerate two consecutive 
stressed syllables.  So if a (e.g. two-syllable) word has a stress on 
the first syllable and it is preceded by a 2-syllable word that would 
normally stress the last/second syllable, that stress is shifted 
backwards toward the beginning of the word to avoid 2 consecutive 
stresses. 

Sometimes, the trop will break the two words from each other so that it 
is not deemed "consecutive" because the trop forces a break in the flow 
of the words anyway, in which case the stresses appear as they ought 
without shifting location.

Noach Witty

Michael Poppers wrote:
> Isn't the first example one of "nasog achor" (the accent being pushed 
> back from the usual qaRA to QAra because the first syllable of the 
> next word, LAYlah, is accented)?
>
> All the best from
> -- Michael Poppers via RIM pager
>
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: Sholom Simon [sholom at aishdas.org]
> Sent: 10/01/2008 11:35 PM AST
> To: Mesorah at lists.aishdas.org
> Subject: [Mesorah] trope question on Bereshis 1:5 & 1:10
>
>
>
> An acquaintance asked the following question:
>
>> In verse 1:5 is the phrase "v'lachoshekh KAra lailah" (emphasis in
>> kara is on the first syllable per the trope).  Later, in what
>> seems like parallel construction in 1:10, we have "ulmikveh hamayim
>> kaRA yamim" -- emphasis in kara is on the second syllable.  Both
>> phrases are the same trope in the same family -- the "kara" is
>> munach in et nachta.  I checked multiple sources, thinking this
>> was a typo, but apparently not.
>>
>> Why the difference?
>
> Any ideas?
>
> -- Sholom
>
>
>
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