[Mesorah] Davar HaAveid vs. Davar HaAvud

[Joshua Meisner]

I got into a discussion today over the proper conjugation of the latter word
in one of the heterei melacha of ChoH"M.  I had always heard it called
Ha-Aveid, using the active participle ("an object being lost") but the other
party insisted it should be Ha-Avud, using the passive participle ("a lost
object").

Google produces sources of some authority that utilize both conjugations,
i.e., money that he is losing and money that he will have lost.  What is the
origin of this difference?

(Upon further consideration of the matter - and aided by the information
that I picked up from Gesenius and Wikipedia in writing this post - I'm not
sure that I fully understand the distinction between these two parts of
speech.  When something is bateil b'shishim, does that mean that it is
continually actively being nullified, as opposed to being batul v'omeid?  If
so, why?)

Thanks and Ch"S,

Josh
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