[Mesorah] ham'chadesh, ham'vorach, ...

[Richard Wolpoe]

On Wed, Jun 11, 2008 at 5:20 PM, Michael Hamm <msh210 at math.wustl.edu> wrote:

> R' Hayyim wrote, in part:
>
>> Gesenius sees the mem after the article as having a "virtual dagesh", and
>> so it acts grammatically as if it had a dagesh (the shewa is na') but is not
>> pronounced as a doubled consonant. (He applies this to the other exceptins
>> as well and theorizes that in these cases the actual pronunciation had lost
>> the doubling and so the Masoretes did not record dagesh.).
>>
>
> Is something like that true also when a letter (typically a lamed for some
> reason, in m ylimited experience) takes a dagesh at the start of a word?
> It's not pronounced doubled, but is (for purposes I cannot fathom)
> grammatically a dagesh?
>
>
> Michael Hamm
> AM, Math, Wash. U. St. Louis
> msh210 at math.wustl.edu                Fine print:
> http://www.math.wustl.edu/~msh210/ <http://www.math.wustl.edu/%7Emsh210/>... legal.html
>

And what about halevi'im in this weeks' Sidra?
Sheva na [afaik] but NO Dagesh in the lamed!
The Gaya separates the hei hayedi'ah in such a way that it is  NOT
hal-vi'im but  ha'levi'im
but there is still no dagesh.

Why?






-- 
Kol Tuv / Best Regards,
RabbiRichWolpoe at Gmail.com
see: http://nishmablog.blogspot.com/
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