[Mesorah] Ps. 37:40

[T613K at aol.com]

In a message dated 8/24/2008 11:54:40 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time,  
HayyimObadyah at aol.com writes:

The root  here is not Hws, but Hsh "to seek refuge".
Hayyim
 
>>>>
When you render a Hebrew shoresh into English letters, can you please spell  
out the letters you mean? For example, you could write, ches-vav-sin -- 
because  I am not sure what you do mean here.  Is "sh" a sound meant to represent a  
shin or is it a sin (somech?) plus a ches?  Thank you.
 
--Toby
--Toby  Katz
=============





-----Original Message-----
From:  mesorah-bounces at lists.aishdas.org
[mailto:mesorah-bounces at lists.aishdas.org]  On Behalf Of Michael Hamm
Sent: Wednesday, June 25, 2008 3:35 PM
To:  mesorah at aishdas.org
Subject: [Mesorah] Ps. 37:40

Nusach S'farad (of  the Ashk'nazim) says the abovementioned pasuk before
maariv: "Vaya'z'rem H'  vay'fal'tem... ki chasu vo."

There is a machlokes had'fusim   :-)  over the trop on "ki chasu".  The
Koren, at least, puts a  hyphenates it with a makaf: "ki-chasu".  And
everyone seems to agree  that the stress on "chasu" is mil'el: "CHAsu".

Now, from the very  little I know about nasog achor, the rule that stress
moves to be mil'el  when the next word has its first syllable stressed, I
understand thatthat  does not occur in a hyphenated word.  Correct me if I'm
wrong,  please.

Yet "CHAsu", if nasog achor has not been applied to it, means  "pitied",
which makes no sense in context.  (I'm not sure what Yonasan  is saying; no
one else translates the word.)

What's going  on?

Achad shahat,

Michael Hamm
AM, Math, Wash. U. St.  Louis
msh210 at math.wustl.edu               Fine print:
http://www.math.wustl.edu/~msh210/ ...  legal.html
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