[Mesorah] saying T'hilim 30 before "Hodu laH'"

[MPoppers at kayescholer.com]

Permit me a brief prologue.  Growing up, I was taught that "Baruch 
sheAmar" was akin to a "by Your leave" request/introduction to uttering 
the praises of "shirei David avd'cha" in the presence of the "Melech 
m'hullal batishbachos" (hence no "shirei David" should be said _before_ 
"Baruch sheAmar"), but that there was a custom which began with talmidei 
haARYZaL to say T'hilim 30 ("Mizmor Shir Chanukas haBayis l'David") before 
"Baruch sheAmar."  Later on during those growing-up years, I davened at a 
nusach-s'fard shtiebel where, among other changes from the Minhag 
Frankfurt I was used to, "Hodu laH'" etc. was said after T'hilim 30 and 
before "Baruch sheAmar."  Ad kan prologue.

Today, I'm looking through SeforimOnline.ORG's list, and I see a PDF (
http://www.teachittome.com/seforim2/seforim/siddur_kol_yakov.pdf) for a 
Siddur Kol Ya'akov (see listing 85 on 
http://www.seforimonline.org/seforim4.html) which intended to reproduce 
nusach haARYZaL.  Great -- a chance to see if T'hilim 30 is indeed listed 
before "Baruch sheAmar!"  Well, it is...but it's listed *after* "Hodu 
laH'" (see pp.92-94 and esp. see the intro. to "Hodu" on p.92, d'h' 
Hinei)!!  So the relatively-recent nusach which nowadays seems pretty 
widespread among Ashk'nazim (to say T'hilim 30 before "Hodu," if not also 
before "Baruch sheAmar") appears to be "neither here nor there" -- it's 
not in consonance w/ the kavanos as brought down b'sheim haARYZaL, but, 
unless I'm mistaken, it's not based on anything other than his 
instructions.  Can someone explain this issue further?  Thanks.

All the best from
Michael Poppers * Elizabeth, NJ, USA
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