[Mesorah] l'zot yikarei ishah

[MPoppers at kayescholer.com]

Ibn Ezra ad loc. explains, "...v'ta'am 'yiqqarei'[20] al sheim[30]," to 
which the "peirush" explains:
  FN 20: shehu lashon zachar
  FN 30: R'tzono lomar k'ilu nichtav, "yiqqarei *sh'mah* ishah," ki 
"yiqqarei" hu lashon zachar v'hu mibbinyan hakkaveid.

If I understand correctly, ibn Ezra is saying that the word is masculine 
to match the elided word "sh'mah" (shin-mem-mappiq_haih), as "sheim" is 
masculine, and the translation would be "her name shall be called 
'ishah.'"

Shabbas Shalom and all the best from
Michael Poppers * Elizabeth, NJ, USA



Sholom Simon <sholom at aishdas.org> 
Sent by: mesorah-bounces at lists.aishdas.org
10/24/2006 11:11 PM



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[Mesorah] l'zot yikarei ishah






An acquaintance of mine posed the following question:

: In Gen. 2:23, Adam says "l'zot yikarei ishah," usually translated
: something like "this one shall be called Woman."  However, the gender of
: the verb "yikarei" is masculine, while the pronoun (zot) and the
: predicate noun (ishah) are both feminine.  I know that there are
: occasions where the gender or number of the verb does not agree with
: that of the subject, but my impression has been that that generally
: occurs where the "incorrectly"- gendered or -numbered verb precedes the
: subject noun, so it's as if the text tells us the verb before focusing
: on what the subject is.

Any thoughts?

-- Sholom

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