[Avodah] What do Chazal mean when they refer to "pashtei d'kra?"

[Micha Berger via Avodah]

Maybe one of you could help R' CHaim Brown, even if he did leave us
over a decade ago. A recent blog post on his "Divrei Chaim" at
<http://divreichaim.blogspot.com/2015/05/what-do-chazal-mean-when-they-refer-to.html>
or <http://j.mp/1FFwtTZ>.

I mean, we talk about different definitions of the concept of "peshat"
often enough, perhaps maybe someone had something.

Tir'u baTov!
-Micha

Divrei Chaim
Wednesday, May 20, 2015

what do Chazal mean when they refer to "pashtei d'kra?"

   The gemara Archin 8b darshens that "tzikascha k'harerei E-l" refers
   to nigei adam, which Hashem in his mercy limits to affecting a person
   for a week. The continuation of the pasuk, "mishpatecha tehom rabbah,"
   refers to nigei batim, where the punishment is more severe in that
   it can stretch out for three weeks.

   The gemara then asks, "Pashtei d'kra b'mai?" and brings two similar
   explanations to the pasuk that read it as saying that G-d shows great
   mercy in tempering and mitigating the verdict that strict justice
   would call for.

   What do Chazal mean when they refer to "pashtei d'kra?" Despite the
   word "pashtei" in there, it does not seem to mean what the Rishonim
   like Rashi call "pshat," because if you look at Rashi or the Metzudas
   David, they don't simply quote this gemara. It seems that the gemara's
   "pashtei d'kra" is itself a derasha, albeit a derasha that is closer
   to the plain meaning of the words than the derasha that links the
   pasuk to nega'im. So are there different levels of derashos? The
   term "pashtei d'kra" is not all that common, so are these isolated
   exceptional cases, or in general are there different levels of derash?
   Does it make any nafka minah (except in our understanding of things?)

Posted by Chaim B. at 9:40 AM