[Mesorah] Rahbbee vs. Ribbi Danniyel 2:48

Sun Apr 30 10:36:23 PDT 2017

you have confused several things.

Aramaic has various verb declensions, as does Hebrew (qal, nif'al).  The form rabbi is the normal 3rd person singular preterite of the Pa''el form, which never has a sh'wa in the first syllable.

Most of qaddish is in Aramaic, but the first two words are from the Hebrew in Ezequiel 38

כג וְהִתְגַּדִּלְתִּי וְהִתְקַדִּשְׁתִּי וְנוֹדַעְתִּי לְעֵינֵי גּוֹיִם רַבִּים
The fact that these form are not the typical Hebrew hipa''el (which would have hitgaddalti) is part of what led the G'ra to decide that these forms should be pronounced with a tzere (the other part is 'al pi qabbala).  But regardless of the exact vocalization, it is indisputable that this is the source for the words in Qaddish.

Rabbi Dr. Seth Mandel

________________________________
From: Richard Wolpoe <rabbirichwolpoe at gmail.com>
Sent: Sunday, April 30, 2017 12:47 PM
To: Mandel, Seth; mesorah at aishdas.org
Subject: Re: [Mesorah] Rahbbee vs. Ribbi Danniyel 2:48

The Hebrew GDL becomes RV? In Aramaic

Sh'meih Rabba in Aramaic is usually translated as Sh'mo Haggadol.

‎Yisgaddal (or Yisgaddeil) in the opening of  kaddish is Hebrew. In Aramaic it would be something like yisravr'vei or the like.

Ahavah Rabbah in Hebrew is not quite the same as Ahavah G'dolah; the Aramaic Rabba ends in an Aleph. This gets into the nusach of Ahavas Olam etc. V'ein Kan m'komo.

‎
Often - the 3rd person past in Aramaic starts with a sh'va. Here in Daniel 2:48 Rahbbee has a patach on the first syllable. I don't know Aramaic grammar well enough to comment further.

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