[Mesorah] teven

[Sholom Simon via Mesorah]

That's close, but not entirely accurate -- so let me try to clear it
up. 

1. RMP noted that he was paraphrasing RGEK in this Leining thread
[1] -- it's a good thread, check it out.

2. What RMP/RGEK said
regarding words with two segols was the following (and I dearly hope I
am summarizing accurately!):

2a. When the first vowel, in the
possessive (or conjunctive) form, changes to a patach, this is what some
call a QaTL segolate, and in the pausal form of this word, 1st segol
will (with few exceptions) also change to a kamatz.

2b. When the first
vowel, in the possessive (or conjunctive) form, changes to a chirik,
this is what some call a QiTL segolate, THERE IS NO RULE as to whether
the 1st segol changes to a kamatz or not. Some do, some don't. (The
thread has an example, but I don't understand it).

I hope this
helps!

-- Sholom

On 2016-01-04 05:01, David and Esther Bannett via
Mesorah wrote: 

> Methinks you are ignoring R'Seth's explanation or
misunderstanding him. He said that when the s'mikhut becomes a patach,
the pausal form has a kamatz. When the s'mikhut becomes a chirik, the
pausal form doesn't change.
> 
> As lechem becomes lachmi and geshem >
gashmi, the pausal has a kamatz. As teven >tivnu, pausal remains
teven.
> 
> David

 

Links:
------
[1]
https://groups.google.com/forum/#%21msg/leining/hxAl32DdPfs/TlHbAjb7cdoJ
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