[Mesorah] az + imperfect

[Mandel, Seth via Mesorah]

The fact that there is a specific morphological form used in a specific syntactical usage does not mean that the same morphological form can be used elsewhere with a different meaning.  
Similarly in idioms. Pins and needles has a specific meaning involving neither pins nor needles. But both words cash be used outside that phrase in different meanings. 
Languages are all very tricky and slippery beasties, reflecting the human mind. There is no such thing known as a "primitive language" that is not tricky and slippery. 

Rabbi Seth Mandel
Sent from my iPhone

> On Jan 1, 2016, at 11:18 AM, "Sholom Simon via Mesorah" <mesorah at lists.aishdas.org> wrote:
> 
> Recently I was discussing with some folks on this list (or what it _on_ this list?  My memory ain't what it used to be) about the phrase "Az yashir", and somebody pointed me to an on-line grammar/diduk translation that pointed out that "Az" and "terem" are followed by the imperfect tense.
> 
> But there are a number of times in this parsha (e.g., 4:26, 4:10) when "az" is not followed by the imperfect.
> 
> Thoughts?
> 
> -- Sholom
> 
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