[Mesorah] kamatz katan at end of word?

[Jeremy Rosenbaum Simon]

It is a kamatz gadol.
Jeremy

On Sun, Aug 19, 2012 at 9:19 AM, Yitzchak M. Gottlieb
<zuki at cs.princeton.edu> wrote:
> On Aug 19, 2012, at 3:54 AM, Michael Hamm wrote:
>
>> We may have discussed this already, but what is the rule, please, for an unstressed kamatz at the end of a word followed (not with a makaf, not with a mafsik) by a dagesh (not beged-kefes): is it a kamatz katan?  (An example is in R'e, which we read today, 14:26: v'aCHALt[a/o] SHAM.)
>
>
> I would argue that it would be a kamatz gadol.  This situation (milaeil word ending in kamatz followed by a word with primary or secondary stress on the first syllable) causes a dagesh in the second word due to the rule of ati m'rechik.  To the best of my recollection, I have not seen the Rada"k, Ibn Ezra or the Minchat Shai indicate that that kamatz is then a kamatz katan.
>
> Zuki
>
> --
> Yitzchak M. Gottlieb
> zuki at CS.Princeton.EDU
>
>
>
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-- 
Jeremy R. Simon, MD, PhD, FACEP
Associate Clinical Professor of Medicine (Emergency Medicine)
Scholar-in-Residence, Center for Bioethics
Columbia University