[Mesorah] kamatz katan at end of word?

[Yitzchak M. Gottlieb]

On Aug 19, 2012, at 3:54 AM, Michael Hamm wrote:

> We may have discussed this already, but what is the rule, please, for an unstressed kamatz at the end of a word followed (not with a makaf, not with a mafsik) by a dagesh (not beged-kefes): is it a kamatz katan?  (An example is in R'e, which we read today, 14:26: v'aCHALt[a/o] SHAM.)


I would argue that it would be a kamatz gadol.  This situation (milaeil word ending in kamatz followed by a word with primary or secondary stress on the first syllable) causes a dagesh in the second word due to the rule of ati m'rechik.  To the best of my recollection, I have not seen the Rada"k, Ibn Ezra or the Minchat Shai indicate that that kamatz is then a kamatz katan.

Zuki

-- 
Yitzchak M. Gottlieb
zuki at CS.Princeton.EDU