[Mesorah] another grammar question

[Poppers, Michael]

WADR, R'Danny, cannot "lawmeis" in 5-14:1 mean something entirely differently than either "lameis" or "l'meis"?  Onqelos apparently thought so.  Good argument to answer R'Michael's question the same way I did, but for a different reason :).  Thanks.


From: mesorah-bounces at lists.aishdas.org [mailto:mesorah-bounces at lists.aishdas.org] On Behalf Of Danny Levy
Sent: Thursday, August 26, 2010 3:36 PM
To: Micha Berger
Cc: Michael Hamm; mesorah at lists.aishdas.org
Subject: Re: [Mesorah] another grammar question

It is not poor dikduk - see D'varim 14:1. R' Michael is correct - it is an indefinite article and means the same as l'meis.

As I understand it, just as vav hachibur can take a kamatz when the word is mil'eil and accented with a ta'am mafsik (see for example B'reshit 8:22), a prefix lamed can do the same, although such forms are rare.  Other examples include zeh lozeh and tzav lotzov kav lokov (Yeshaya 28:10).

Danny Levy



2010/8/26 Micha Berger <micha at aishdas.org<mailto:micha at aishdas.org>>
On Thu, Aug 26, 2010 at 02:08:47PM -0500, Michael Hamm wrote:
: On Thu, Aug 26, 2010 at 12:04 PM, Micha Berger <micha at aishdas.org<mailto:micha at aishdas.org>> wrote:
: > On Thu, Aug 26, 2010 at 10:46:22AM -0500, Michael Hamm wrote:
: > : Someone leining Ki Savo said (26:14) "v'lo nasati mimenu lames", with
: > : an Ashkenazi kamatz (not a patach) under the lamed of "lames" instead
: > : of the proper sh'va.
: <snip>
: > "Lameis" means "to the deceased", as opposed to the pasuq really talking
: > about "to a deceased". No?

: Does it?  With a kamatz?
I think it does, as La- with a qamatz means that elsewhere. The fact that
it's poor diqduq to boot... Well, "I throwing the ball" means something,
despite the grammatical flaw.

Tir'u baTov!
-Micha

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