[Mesorah] another grammar question

[Danny Levy]

It is not poor dikduk - see D'varim 14:1. R' Michael is correct - it is an
indefinite article and means the same as l'meis.

As I understand it, just as vav hachibur can take a kamatz when the word is
mil'eil and accented with a ta'am mafsik (see for example B'reshit 8:22), a
prefix lamed can do the same, although such forms are rare.  Other examples
include zeh lozeh and tzav lotzov kav lokov (Yeshaya 28:10).

Danny Levy



2010/8/26 Micha Berger <micha at aishdas.org>

> On Thu, Aug 26, 2010 at 02:08:47PM -0500, Michael Hamm wrote:
> : On Thu, Aug 26, 2010 at 12:04 PM, Micha Berger <micha at aishdas.org>
> wrote:
> : > On Thu, Aug 26, 2010 at 10:46:22AM -0500, Michael Hamm wrote:
> : > : Someone leining Ki Savo said (26:14) "v'lo nasati mimenu lames", with
> : > : an Ashkenazi kamatz (not a patach) under the lamed of "lames" instead
> : > : of the proper sh'va.
> : <snip>
> : > "Lameis" means "to the deceased", as opposed to the pasuq really
> talking
> : > about "to a deceased". No?
>
> : Does it?  With a kamatz?
>
> I think it does, as La- with a qamatz means that elsewhere. The fact that
> it's poor diqduq to boot... Well, "I throwing the ball" means something,
> despite the grammatical flaw.
>
> Tir'u baTov!
> -Micha
>
> --
> Micha Berger             Every second is a totally new world,
> micha at aishdas.org        and no moment is like any other.
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