[Mesorah] another grammar question

[Michael Hamm]

On Thu, Aug 26, 2010 at 12:04 PM, Micha Berger <micha at aishdas.org> wrote:
> On Thu, Aug 26, 2010 at 10:46:22AM -0500, Michael Hamm wrote:
> : Someone leining Ki Savo said (26:14) "v'lo nasati mimenu lames", with
> : an Ashkenazi kamatz (not a patach) under the lamed of "lames" instead
> : of the proper sh'va.  I corrected him without thinking about it
> : (instinctively, you could say), and he went back, but after thinking
> : about it I think I was wrong: there was no change in meaning.  Which
> : is right: the correcting me or the new me?
>
> I would ask slightly differently:
> Does the halakhah apply to a change of the word's meaning that doesn't
> change the meaning of the phrase as a whole?
>
> "Lameis" means "to the deceased", as opposed to the pasuq really talking
> about "to a deceased". No?

Does it, though?  With a kamatz?

Michael Hamm