[Mesorah] Shalsheleth

[Richard Wolpoe]

On Thu, Nov 27, 2008 at 9:33 PM, David J Havin <djhavin at iprimus.com.au>wrote:

>  Why, in each of the seven instances in the *Tanach*, does the *Shalsheleth
> *appear on the first word of the sentence?
>
> _


Disclaimer I did not read the entire thread, so forigve me if this retraces
some territory.

I was taught that the Shalsheles replaces a zarka segol when there is only
ONE word.

Illustrations:

Take Parasha Vo'eiara. Vayomer Moshe has a zarka segol at the beginning of
the passuk. As a matter of fact, the Zarka segol MSUT precede the esnachta.

In these short zarko segols combinaiotns, there is a verb and subject.

All 4 verbs in the Torah have NO subejct.  Due to the lack of a Subject the
Verbs therefore cannot take a lone segol and a Shalsheles is used instead.
That is how I was taught.

I hope this helps.



-- 
Kol Tuv - Best Regards,
RabbiRichWolpoe at Gmail.com
see: http://nishmablog.blogspot.com/
-------------- next part --------------
An HTML attachment was scrubbed...
URL: <http://lists.aishdas.org/pipermail/mesorah-aishdas.org/attachments/20081207/3f07f117/attachment-0010.htm>