[Mesorah] Shalsheleth

[Sholom Simon]

At 06:06 PM 12/2/2008, Joshua Meisner wrote:
>2008/12/1 Noah Witty <<mailto:nwitty at optonline.net>nwitty at optonline.net>
>>
>>replaces the segol
>What's your source? Also, how would one know that the it is a segol 
>that the shalsheles is replacing? I think shalsheles is followed 
>each time by a pesik (vertical line), which is not the case with a segol.
>
>
>I don't know what sort of primary source would have this 
>information, but I've seen this idea mentioned in a number of 
>secondary sources.  The line following the shalsheles may not be a 
>p'sik (I've also been told such about the line following a munach 
>l'garmeih); the presence of a p'sik, at any rate, is often 
>(usually?) to separate between words that could be read in a 
>heretical manner (e.g., Ya'eir HaShem / panav eilecha opposes the 
>potential reading of that places the Sheim as an object with an 
>implied subject, rather than as the Subject), and is then unrelated 
>to the grammatical structure of the passuk.

FWIW, I have a vague recollection of R Seth Mandel mentioning that 
one of the Tosafists, perhaps it was Rabbeinu Tam?, wrote about the 
rules of trope, which are mechanical/algorithmic, as described in 
this thread.  (And I also specifically remember RSM mentioning that 
there's a "rule" that a segol can not be the first mark of a pasuk, 
and the four times it's needed in the first word, it's replaced by a 
shalsheles).

So, no sources, other than RSM, who is aware of the sources,

-- Sholom

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