[Mesorah] lavetach
Michael Hamm
msh210 at math.wustl.edu
Mon Aug 11 09:47:56 PDT 2008
Why is it "lavetach" not "l'vetach", and so for many other words? (E.g.,
"kazos".)
(Someone on this list, some time ago, said that when a vav hachibur has a
kamatz, it's because the next syllable of the word is stressed, and the
word is one of a pair with the preceding word. Words like "lavetach" and
"kazos" also seem to have the second syllable stressed, but the idea of
"one of a pair" doesn't make sense with prefixes other than vav hachibur.
So there must be something else going on here. (Nor is it the case that
_every_ time a word has its first syllable stressed and has k-, l-, b-, or
v- prefix added, that prefix gets a kamatz, as cursory inspection will
show.))
Michael Hamm
AM, Math, Wash. U. St. Louis
msh210 at math.wustl.edu Fine print:
http://www.math.wustl.edu/~msh210/ ... legal.html
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