[Mesorah] Lashaon Tanach vs. Lashon Hazal

[Seth Mandel]

I quoted gashem vs. geshem for a reason; that was a clear change in nusach 
hat'fillo.
However, gefen vs. gafen is not so clear.  Although it is clear that the 
normal 2nd p. masc. sing. suffix is -akh, and that the normal 1st p. pl. 
pronoun is anu, and so they appear in all mss., l'shon HaZaL may have used 
pausal forms like gafen (and even geshem, though not in the middle of a 
b'rokho).  Evidence from the mss. is by no means clear.  So don't cite gafen 
gefen as any proof, although it is clear that the original nusach Ashk'naz 
was gefen.
Ironically, you cite modim anahnu lakh.  That is one of the cases where 
there is a clear reference to the T'NaKh, which is why it is not modim anu.
I am interested in facts, not recommending whether people change to daven 
the way that HaZaL originally intended.  The facts are pretty uniform in the 
mss., whether S'faradi, Ashk'nazi, Teimani, or other.  It was na'aritzakh 
and naqdishakh, whichever order and whichever nusakh.


>Anyone comment yet on the irony that this subject line contains
>"lashon" and not "leshon"?
>
>On Tue, September 11, 2007 12:54 pm, Seth Mandel wrote:
>: A useful check is looking in the mss. and seeing where the loshon of
>: -okh rather than -akho is used.  Later grammarians changed it, but in
>: most of the t'fillo, except for Biblical references, -okh is used.
>
>Nusach Ashkenaz and Chassidish "Sfard" are pretty consistently
>switched over. "Modim anakhnu Lakh" is the only exception I can think
>of. Even Yedid Nefesh got converted over.
>
>Similarly, Ashkenazi "bori peri hagafen" vs Sepharadi "gefen".

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