[Mesorah] Yad Vashem, not Yad Veshem

[Michael Poppers]

Thank you, REMT.  In all respects, I'm glad I suggested that RnTK note on 
Mesorah what I had privately written to her.  One minor comment:

> (If I had said it, I would have said "as if there _were_," not "as if 
there _was_.") <
I wrote the sentence assuming an understood phrase akin to "for the 2nd 
member of the given pair" [before the word "even"].  Forgive my improper 
imprecision :-).

All the best from
Michael Poppers * Elizabeth, NJ, USA



"Elazar M. Teitz" <remt at juno.com> 
Sent by: mesorah-bounces at lists.aishdas.org
10/10/2007 03:54 PM



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Re: [Mesorah] Yad Vashem, not Yad Veshem






     In answer to the question as to why there is a kamatz under the vav 
hachibur in "yad vashem," I was quoted as having explained that

>>Pairs of items are specified in TaNaCH as if there was a heih hay'diah 
even when the conversational English translation uses an improper article, 
e.g. B'reishis 8:22.<<

     I don't recall having said so in this context, but in any event the 
explanation is much simpler: when the syllable following the vav hachibur 
is accented (or the word following the vav is monosyllabic, and hence 
automatically accented) the sh'va changes into a kamatz.  Thus, in the 
pasuk cited, we have zera v'kaTZIR, but kor vaCHOM, kayitz vaCHOref, yom 
vaLAIla.  It's why the neighborhood of Yerushalayim is Bayit VAgan, and 
why the kohein gadol counted achas V'achas, achas V'shalosh, achas V'arba, 
but achas VAshesh and achas VAsheva.

    (If I had said it, I would have said "as if there _were_," not "as if 
there _was_.")

EMT

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