[Mesorah] question re 5-15:11

[Danny.Levy at teva.co.il]

I cannot answer R' Michael's question but here is another example of a 
similar phenomenon:

The first parsha of Matot includes seven p'sukim that start with v'im.  In 
six of them, v'im is hyphenated to the following word.  In 4-30:9, 
however, not only is v'im not hyphenated, but also it has a mafsik 
(t'lisha g'dola).  One would expect it to be hyphenated to the kadma as 
4-30:6.  Can anyone think of a reason for the difference, either connected 
to the rules of t'amim or to the meaning of this pasuk?

Danny Levy




MPoppers at kayescholer.com 
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22/08/2006 22:40
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[Mesorah] question re 5-15:11






(Please forgive me if this question has been previously asked on this 
forum, but I couldn't find any indication that it had.)

This posuq, like 5-15:8, features the phrase "pasoach tiftach [es 
yad'cha]."  In verse 8, the first word of the phrase is graced with a 
m'shorais, as one would expect from a doubled-verb phrase; does anyone 
know why it's graced with a mafsiq in verse 11?  AFAIK, the t'lisha g'dola 

is of the same "mafsiqedness" as the azla, so the full phrase is governed 
more by the tipcha on the 2nd-to-last word in the verse -- seems to me a 
t'lisha *q'tana* (i.e. a m'shorais which, in earlier manuscripts, was 
written the same way but merely above a different portion of the word) 
would make more sense.  Does anyone speak to this issue?  (I checked the 
online Aleppo Codex, but it begins with D'varim 28.)  Thanks.

All the best from
Michael Poppers * Elizabeth, NJ, USA

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