[Avodah] Geshem or Gashem?!

[David and Esther Bannett via Avodah]

I don't really care whether one says geshem or gashem because they both 
mean the same thing. The advice to pause a moment after saying the 
pausal form gashem and not to pause after geshem makes sense.

What has long bothered me is something else.  Why do the "corrected" 
siddurim who have geshem also have morid hatal with tal in the pausal 
form with a kamatz rather than the non-pausal form, with a patach, as in 
tal umatar?

I once saw or heard an explanation but, as it involved mysticism which 
is not something I go for, I forgot it.  I then posted my question to 
the list and someone sent the mystical story. But, I have forgotten it 
again.

Don't bother to enlighten me because I have no need to forget a third time.

But my question still stands.  Why is one pausal and the other is not 
when the following words are the same.


David
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