[Avodah] Transition From Aramaic To Hebrew
Jay F Shachter
jay at m5.chicago.il.us
Mon Apr 16 07:42:10 PDT 2012
>
> So, it could be an intentional switch to a biblical reference to
> emphasize the unity of being of the same city, a notion necessary
> for this clause to work. The reference could well be to Yirmiyahu
> 17:24-25 in particular, as it refers to shemiras Shabbos protecting
> the city. IOW, that eiruv tavshilin ends "... hadarin 'be'ir'
> hazos'" in quotes.
>
> Tir'u baTov!
> -Micha
>
For this to be true (and it may be), you must be working with a third
text, one that neither I nor R' Akiva Miller has. You must have
"lana", which I have but R"AM has not (he has "lanu"), and you must
have "haddarin", which neither I nor R"AM have. Both of us have
"haddarim", with a mem at the end, not a nun. But if the proper text
is "haddarin" with a nun, and if your theory is correct, then the
qamatz underneath the khaf is unquestionably an Aramaic qamatz, and
the word should be pronounced so as to rhyme with "doll".
Jay F. ("Yaakov") Shachter
6424 N Whipple St
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jay at m5.chicago.il.us
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"Quidquid latine dictum sit, altum videtur"
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