[Avodah] D'zabin or Diz'van?

[Micha Berger]

On Fri, Apr 15, 2011 at 03:48:16AM -0700, Simon Montagu wrote:
: Grammaticaly, "diz'van" is probably more correct, assuming that abba
: bought the kid rather than selling it, and one of my haggadot brings a
: text from a 13th-14th century manuscript (not part of a haggada) which
: spells it that way. My question is, does anybody here have a masora to
: pronounce it "diz'van", or is it a modern correction?

My memory is of "dezabin", so you didn't really ask me.

I just wanted to tie this into the greater question. More important than
saying Chad Gadya correctly is saying Qaddish.

It's one thing to argue that when speaking Biblical Hebrew, being LhQ,
the grammar of the language is itself qadosh and Torah. But the whole
point of the choice of Aramaic for Qaddish, Shas or parts of the Hagadah
is because it was the vernacular.

So, do we care more about Aramaic as she is spoken -- as that's the
vernacular, or as she is /supposed/ to be spoken?

I could also see different answers when speaking of Qaddish, which is
tefillah or when learning gemara (I just can't get my head around saying
"bedi'avad") or sippur yetzi'as Mitzrayim, where the focus is on relaying
information.

Getting back to Chad Gadya: Is Nirtzah even sippur, or an elaboration
of Hallel?

:-)BBii!
-Micha

-- 
Micha Berger             A person must be very patient
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