[Avodah] Who First Said It? 6

[Zev Sero]

rabbirichwolpoe at gmail.com wrote:
> Plz append if not too late - otherwise I'll post BEH mar'eh m'qomos later
> 
> AhS: O"Ch 444:5
> 
> My translation:
> Rema's kavvana is NOT that matzira ashira is not to eat matzah ashira
> Erev Pesach - rather since it's not our minhag to have it on Passover
> therefore it's not k'day to be matri'ach to make some for JUST
> shaloshudos and no more.>

http://hebrewbooks.org/pdfpager.aspx?req=9102&st=&pgnum=31
Nu, so who says he's right?  You actually missed out a bit.  What the
AHS writes is: "And it seems that this doesn't mean that also on Erev
Pesach one shouldn't eat matza ashira according to the minhag, *for*
*there is no reason to this*."   What does he mean, that there is no
reason to forbid it on Erev Pesach?  To answer that, one must first
ask what is the reason we forbid it on Pesach itself?  The AHS himself
says that the reason is a concern that a drop of water will find its
way into the mixture, and it will become chametz.
http://hebrewbooks.org/pdfpager.aspx?req=9102&st=&pgnum=80
So why is this concern any less on Erev Pesach?

A hint at the answer can be found in the Chok Yaakov on siman 444.
He distinguishes between two possible reason for the minhag.  One is
chashash chimutz.  If so, there is no reason to distinguish EP from
Pesach itself.  But the other possible reason is that we don't eat
matza ashira on Pesach lest we come to eat it at the seder.  If so,
then allowing it on EP makes sense; not only will this not lead us to
eat it at the seder, but on the contrary it will drive home to us that
this is *not* the sort of matza which which one can do the mitzvah,
and that is precisely why it's allowed on EP.  Thus, those who hold
that this is the reason for the minhag will permit it for shaleshudes.

But this leaves us with a puzzle: the AHS in siman 462 gives the first
reason for the minhag, not the second one, so why does he write as he
does in siman 444?  The only tentative answer I can think of is that
he changed his mind between 444 and 462, and forgot to go back and
correct himself.  But this is very shvach.

At any rate, now that I've looked at this Chok Yaacov I can better
answer your original question: who first forbade matza ashira on Erev
Pesach?  The Chok Yaacov, after first making the same suggestion as
the AHS ("ve'efshar dekavanas harav..."), then quotes the Maharil (Hil'
Shabbos Hagodol) and the Hagohos SMaK (siman 219) that issur applies
also on EP, becaues the reason is chashash chimutz, and says that this
is in fact what the Ramo meant ("ve'achar zeh nimshach harav").
So the answer (until a better one comes up) is the Maharil and the Smak.

-- 
Zev Sero                      The trouble with socialism is that you
zev at sero.name                 eventually run out of other people’s money
                                                     - Margaret Thatcher