[Avodah] R Asher Weiss

[Rich, Joel]

Me-original> If one of us and the gadol hador were on a desert island
and there 
> were only one kzayit of matzah available for pesach and it was our 
> property, Hashem would get more nachat ruach if we gave it to the 
> gadol hador to be mkayem the mitzvah (and we should act as such - 
> although iiuc we would not be compelled to)
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R'DR-Why doesn't this fall under the general rubric of "hayyecha
kodmin"? Or "v'chi omrin l'adam hate bishvil sheyizkeh haveireicha?"

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ME-I suppose one could argue that there is a mitzvah of kavod (IIRC
there is disagreement as to whether this is an unbounded definition or
only applies to specific categories of service) for your rebbe muvhak
and a gadol hador iirc according to some is everyone's rebbe muvhak and
you are giving up a mitzvah bein adam lmakom for one that has elements
of bein adam lchaveiro.

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R'DE- This issue is discussed in detail in the Shaarei Tshuva 482:2 "The
Beis Yehuda has the case of two people who are in jail or in the desert
and they only have 1 kezayis of matzoh - who takes precedent? He
concludes that they should fight it out....
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Me- I suppose one could argue this is in the case of everything else
being equal and R' AW posits it a case which is not so
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R'DE-I asked Rav Shlomo Zalman Auerbach why it was necessary to fight
when it was hefker but it was permitted to give away the mitzva if you
own the matzoh. He replied that it was obvious. If it is hefker and you
let the other have it - you are mevazeh the mitzva. It shows you don't
care. But if it is yours and you want to help another do the mitzva by
your generosity there is no bizoi mitzva.

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Me- I am not at the level of understanding R' SZA.  Does this imply I
should arm wrestle the gadol hador for the matzah and then give it to
him after I wrest it away?

KT
Joel Rich
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