[Avodah] Changing Havarah

[David Cohen]

I am interested in learning more about the history of the adoption of
the Israeli pronunciation system.

I have one source that mentions in passing that the decision was made
in the 5690s (1930s CE).  Given that Modern Hebrew had already been
gaining popularity as an everyday language for a few decades before
that, does this mean that Modern-Hebrew-speaking Ashkenazim had
previously been conducting their everyday speech in "havoroh
Ashkenazis," and then suddenly changed?

Once the current prounuciation system was adopted for everyday speech,
how quickly did it become the accepted norm for liturgical use in
Israeli dati-leumi circles?  I know that Rav AY Kook was against the
change.  Did many Ashkenazim of that generation actively change the
way they davened, or was it simply that the next generation, for whom
Modern Hebrew was a first language, didn't see any reason to read
letters differently in the siddur any differently than they had been
taught to read them in other books?

I know plenty of people who came over from Europe in the 1940s and now
daven with Israeli pronunciation, but they may simply have been
copying what they already found here.  I'm interested specifically in
those who were already in Eretz Yisra'el at the the beginning of the
pronunciation shift.  Do we have any written records of anyone from
that period arguing on ideological grounds that people SHOULD change
the havarah with which they davened, in order for it to match the
havarah used for everyday conversation?

This may seem like a question more for a sociology or history list
than for Avodah, but I think that it is relevant. An argument was made
that was made that unlike other pronunciation shifts (such as American
adoption of the English "r" for "reish," for example), which happened
naturally, the shift to modern Israeli pronunciation was a deliberate
clean break, and is thus illegitimate.  My question relates to the
validity of the premise of this argument.

--D,C,