<div dir="ltr"><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif;font-size:large;color:rgb(0,0,255)">...and I believe it was RSMandel who pointed out that a mafsiq of a certain "strength" has characteristics of a m'shareis when it occurs immediately prior to a "stronger" mafsiq.</div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif;font-size:large;color:rgb(0,0,255)"><br></div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif;font-size:large;color:rgb(0,0,255)">More info. from RSM et al. can be found <a href="https://sites.google.com/site/torahreading/mafsiqim">here</a> (a Webpage I created many moons ago :)).</div><div class="gmail_default" style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif;font-size:large;color:#0000ff"><br></div></div><div class="gmail_extra"><br><div class="gmail_quote">On Mon, Apr 24, 2017 at 11:18 PM, Sholom Simon via Mesorah <span dir="ltr"><<a href="mailto:mesorah@lists.aishdas.org" target="_blank">mesorah@lists.aishdas.org</a>></span> wrote:<br><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1px #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex">
<div>
Re: tipcha not being pausal:<br><br>
Somebody here -- I think it may have been R M Poppers? -- pointed out to
me instances where a tipcha divided up two words in smichus
form.<br><br>
-- Sholom<span class=""><br><br>
At 03:37 PM 4/24/2017, Danny Levy via Mesorah wrote:<br>
</span><blockquote type="cite" class="m_6030518786996731784cite"><span class="">Did Perlman explain why 'lemor'
is often connected to the previous word contrary to the syntax?<br><br>
Indeed it appears to be the case in about half of the instances of
'lemor' but this one stands out as an extreme example in which the
adjective is disconnected from the noun it describes in order to connect
it to 'lemor' instead.<br><br>
Danny Levy<br><br>
2017-04-23 22:08 GMT+03:00 Dov Bloom
<<a href="mailto:dovbbb@gmail.com" target="_blank">dovbbb@gmail.com</a>>:<br>
</span><dl>
<dd><span class="">1. I am pretty sure that the tipha on the word hanotarim is not a
real mafsik (pausal trop) but is there because of the 2 word unit
'hanotarim l'amor"<br>
</span></dd><dd>2. Mori veRabi in the field of biblical accentuation (teamim, trop)
Mechel Perlman wrote a lot about the way teamim treat the word l'amor.
IIRC the word is usually conjucted to other preceeding words (as in the
ubiquitous vaydaber Hashem el-Moshe l'amor , the mafsik on the second
word conjuncts  {el-Moshe l'amor}  together. <br>
</dd><dd>We would expect by syntax:{vaydaber Hashem el-Moshe} : (semicolon) Â
l'amor. But the teamim don't do it the way we would have expected. <br>
</dd><dd>Dov Bloom<br><br>
</dd><dd><span class="">On Apr 23, 2017 9:47 PM, "Danny Levy via Mesorah"
<<a href="mailto:mesorah@lists.aishdas.org" target="_blank">
mesorah@lists.aishdas.org</a>> wrote:<br>
</span><dl>
<dd>Can anybody explain or venture a guess why the Ba'alei Hamesorah
fixed the te'amim of the second half of Vayikra 10:16 - vayiktzof
al-Elazar v'al-Itamar b'nei Aharon hanotarim lemor - to be t'lisha
g'dola, mahpach, pashta, munach, zakef, tipcha, sof pasuk, such that
'hanotarim' is joined to the following 'lemor' rather than to the
preceeding 'bnei Aharon'?<span class=""><br><br>
</span></dd><dd>Wouldn't t'lisha k'tana, kadma v'azla, darga, t'vir, tipcha, sof
pasuk fit the p'shat better?<br><br>
</dd><dd>Danny Levy<br><br>
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