<html><div>Even according to the Malbim it may still mean past tense; all the other mefarshim learn it clearly that way. Question stands. </div>
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<div>Gershon<br>gershon.dubin@juno.com<br><br>---------- Original Message ----------<br>From: Simon Montagu <simon.montagu@gmail.com><br>To: Gershon Dubin <gershon.dubin@juno.com><br>Cc: "mesorah@aishdas.org" <mesorah@aishdas.org><br>Subject: Re: [Mesorah] Vav hahipuch<br>Date: Wed, 28 Oct 2015 16:28:41 +0200<br><br></p>
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<div class="gmail_quote">On Wed, Oct 28, 2015 at 4:19 PM, Gershon Dubin via Mesorah <span dir="ltr"><<a href="mailto:mesorah@lists.aishdas.org" target="_blank">mesorah@lists.aishdas.org</a>></span> wrote:<br>
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<div>Look at Yeshaya 48:3. In the word "ve'ashmi'em"; why does the nikud on the vav not change to kamatz since it's avar and not asid?</div>
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<div>Why are you sure it's avar? See Malbim <a href="https://he.wikisource.org/wiki/%D7%9E%D7%9C%D7%91%D7%99%22%D7%9D_%D7%A2%D7%9C_%D7%99%D7%A9%D7%A2%D7%99%D7%94%D7%95_%D7%9E%D7%97_%D7%92">https://he.wikisource.org/wiki/%D7%9E%D7%9C%D7%91%D7%99%22%D7%9D_%D7%A2%D7%9C_%D7%99%D7%A9%D7%A2%D7%99%D7%94%D7%95_%D7%9E%D7%97_%D7%92</a></div>
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