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<DIV><!-- Converted from text/plain format --><FONT face=Arial color=#0000ff>Does anyone else on the list read according to Sephardic or
Mizrahi minhagh? I'd like to hear from others on this topic.</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial color=#0000ff></FONT> </DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial color=#0000ff>We consider paseq a ta`am and it is included
in that list at the front of tiqqunim to help you learn the ta`amim. It
consistently changes the preceeding ta`am, whether or not that is munah.
We have no legarmeh. (Ashkenazim have no trei-qadmin.)</FONT><BR></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial color=#0000ff></FONT> </DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial color=#0000ff>With that said, I recognize that the nusah
of Baghdadh is probably not consistent with Ben-Asher. I presume that
the Tiberian ta`amim and the indigenous Babylonian ta`amim were consolidated to
create what became the current nusah.</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial color=#0000ff>Hayyim</FONT><BR><BR><FONT size=2><BR>-----Original Message-----<BR>From: mesorah-bounces@lists.aishdas.org
[<A href="mailto:mesorah-bounces@lists.aishdas.org">mailto:mesorah-bounces@lists.aishdas.org</A>]
On Behalf Of dovb@netvision.net.il<BR>Sent: Wednesday, December 03, 2008 5:48
PM<BR>To: mesorah@aishdas.org<BR>Subject: Re: [Mesorah]
Shalsheleth<BR><BR>Definitely the paseq-like line after a munach-legarmei or a
shalshelet gedola in taamei emet is not a paseq. A paseq can only occur after a
meshareit (conjunct trop) and the legarmei and shalshelet are mafsikim (disjunct
trop).<BR><BR>This is because the paseq indicates a weaker pause even than the
weakest mafsik.<BR>There would be, therefore, no impact were the pasek to be
after a mafsik.<BR><BR>Source:<BR>Wolf Heidenheim Mishpatei HaTeamim zayin amud
bet: Lo nimna lo im<BR>haTeamim(hamafsikim) velo in hameshartim<BR><BR>Leah
Widawski (Now Dr. Leah Himmelfarb who teaches in Bar Ilan and specializes in
Messora and Taamei HaMikra) wrote the authoritative text on the paseq so far - a
400 page doctorate on the paseq (Bar Ilan 1990).<BR>She gives 3 reasons on page
2 to support Heidenheim who claims that the paseq is not a ta'am:<BR>1) the
paseq has no musical value like all other teamim<BR>2) the paseq comes after a
word while the teamin usually are above or below the word, nearly always above
or below the first letter of the accented syllable of the word<BR>3) The rules
regarding application of the paseq are not absolute whereas the teamim generally
have absolute rules<BR><BR>(for example: the tipcha is the last disjunct before
sof pasuq; if 2 zekaifim appear in one tzela, the first is the stronger and the
second divides the words following the first zakef. ) Rules for occurances of
paseq are formulated "often" "sometimes" "frequently" "usually" but never
"always". I guess the exception would be my statement above: a pasek never
follows a ta'am mafsik! This is not a rule when paseq does occur, but a
definition of when in _can_ possibly occur. So Himmelfarb is accurate that the
rules regarding the application of paseq are not absolute.<BR><BR>Breuers book
on Ttaamei HaMikra has a whole chapter on paseq. In English see Wickes book
(reprinted by Ktav) that I quoted in my last post.<BR><BR>Previous
post:<BR>Subject: Re: [Mesorah] Shalsheleth<BR>Without the pasek of the legarmei
it would not be a legarmei but an ordiinary munach, ilui or
karbolta.<BR><BR>Just as two symbols are used in ta'amei emet to indicate a
single ta'am, so the legarmei is indicated by two symbols to identify it as
different from the other t'amim that use the inverse L, munach
symbol.<BR><BR>The pasek's integration into the legarmei symbol might be
justification for the comment that it is not officially a
pasek.<BR><BR>_______________________________________________<BR>Mesorah mailing
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