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<p>> A baal k'ria recently told me that kadashim/kodashim has a kamatz gadol<br>
(rachav) at its start, but hakodashim has a kamatz katan. Is this<br>
correct? I always thought each had a kamatz katan. <<br>
AFAIK, there is a machloqes hadaqdaqanim if a qamatz in an open syllable ahead of a chataf-qamatz is a QQ or a QG. <br>
<br>
> (And why would the<br>
prefixed he make a difference?) <<br>
Offhand, I don't see why any additional syllable(s) ahead of the open syllable in question would, ceteris paribus, make a difference.<br>
<br>
All the best from<br>
--Michael Poppers via RIM pager<br>
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