<div>Just a note on the note:</div>
<div>IIRC, in a recent article Prof. Richard Steiner showed that the probably original vocalization for the vowel is kamets (segol under the mem) as in kamets pimakh.</div>
<div> </div>
<div>Yisrael Dubitsky<br> </div>
<div><span class="gmail_quote">On 11/19/07, <b class="gmail_sendername">Michael Hamm</b> <<a href="mailto:msh210@math.wustl.edu">msh210@math.wustl.edu</a>> wrote:</span>
<blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="PADDING-LEFT: 1ex; MARGIN: 0px 0px 0px 0.8ex; BORDER-LEFT: #ccc 1px solid">Hi, all,<br><br>In the leining this past Shabas afternoon, we had<br> eloke avi avraham veloke avi yitchak
<br>and also<br> hatzileni na miyad achi miyad esav<br>. Both "avi"s and the "achi" have a kamatz gadol. In the shul I was in,<br>the baal k'ria, who read with an Ashk'nazi accent (differentiating kamatz
<br>gadol from patach), read the first "avi" with a patach or chataf patach.<br>I jumped on him, correcting it to a kamatz, as "avi avraham", with a<br>chataf patach, is a way of saying "the father of Avraham",
i.e. Terach.<br>So he re-read it correctly, and read "avi yitzchak" correctly too. Then,<br>when he got to "miyad achi", he read _it_ with a patach or chataf patach<br>also. This time, I didn't correct him: after all, I reasoned, "achi" with
<br>a chataf-patach, meaning "the brother of", would be meaningless in that<br>context, so the misreading doesn't change the meaning of the phrase (and<br>it's not even a mistake according to the Israeli pronunciation). What do
<br>you all think: was I correct to correct him the first time? Was I correct<br>not to the second?<br><br>Happy Chanuka,<br><br>Michael Hamm<br>AM, Math, Wash. U. St. Louis<br><a href="mailto:msh210@math.wustl.edu">msh210@math.wustl.edu
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