[Mesorah] Two (obvious) questions on parshas bereshis - double trop and double arum

[Danny Levy]

I do not have an answer to R' Sholom's first question, but it leads me to a
more general question that I have often wondered about.  R. Breuer's
writings on ta'amei hamikra give the impression that the te'amim of any
pasuk are an inevitable consequence of the precise punctuation of the
pasuk, with the division and interrelationship between its clauses, that is
needed in order to convey its exact meaning.  Undoubtedly this is often the
case, certainly for p'sukim of simple structure, but is it always true?
Not only do individual p'sukim have "dramatic" te'amim, as in R' Sholom's
example, but the same is true for extended passages (the Sukkot parasha in
Emor (23:33-44) is a recent example that comes to mind). Is it just a
coincidence that a number of successive p'sukim require "dramatic" te'amim
for their precise meaning?

Danny

‫בתאריך יום ג׳, 9 באוק׳ 2018 ב-20:55 מאת ‪Sholom Simon via Mesorah‬‏ <‪
mesorah at lists.aishdas.org‬‏>:‬

> Shana tova, eveybody.  These questions are so obvious that I'm sure
> they've been asked before.  Nevertheless . . . .
>
> 1.  What's the deal with the two trop marks on one word (5:29, "zeh")?
> What does that even mean?  What does it do?
>
> 2.  According to an online version of Strong's, they say that the first
> two occasions of the word "arum" (ayin-reish-mem), are from two different
> shorashim (one meaning naked, the other meaning cunning).  Can anyone here
> elaborate on that?  (I also have a vague recollection of an assertion that
> mikveh (pool) and kaveh (hope) also come from two different shorashim . . .
> )
>
> Thoughts, anyone?
>
> -- Sholom
>
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