[Mesorah] Bamidbar 23:18

[Henry Topas]

In yesterday's kriat hatorah, the phrase "kum balak u'sh'ma" is vowelized
in many seforim as "kum balak u'sha'mah with a chataf patach in place of
the sh'va.  The Minchas Shai also draws one's attention to the same
situation in Va'etchanan on the phrase "k'rav atah u'sh'mah or u'sha'mah"
and in Daniel "Hatei .....aznecha u'sh'ma".

My understanding was always that the vav ha-chibur changes to the shuruk
when followed by a consonant vowelized by a sh'va (or if followed by either
vet, vav, mem or phay)

If the shuruk at the beginning of the word is a given, why would the chataf
patach be an option instead of the shva?

Thank you,

Henry Topas
Dollard des Ormeaux, Montreal
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