[Mesorah] Kon'nah, Kon'nehu, Jussive

Mandel, Seth mandels at ou.org
Sun Dec 17 15:16:10 PST 2017


?

Neither is preterite, present, future or jussive.  They are both imperative.  Kon'nah is imperative with the -ah ending that is occasionally in both the future and imperative.  Kon'nehu is imperative with the third person masculine singular ending ("establish it").


Rabbi Dr. Seth Mandel
Rabbinic Coordinator
The Orthodox Union

Voice (212) 613-8330     Fax (212) 613-0718     e-mail mandels at ou.org


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From: Mesorah <mesorah-bounces at lists.aishdas.org> on behalf of Akiva Miller via Mesorah <mesorah at lists.aishdas.org>
Sent: Sunday, December 17, 2017 12:27 PM
To: mesorah at aishdas.org
Subject: [Mesorah] Kon'nah, Kon'nehu, Jussive

I need help understanding the pasuk "Veehee Noam", particularly the
words Kon'nah and Kon'nehu.

My guess is that Kon'nehu is actually a compound word, made up of a
verb and an object. But I am not good at separating the two. It might
be Kon'nah with either Oto or Otam, but I really don't know.

Kon'nah might also be a compound, or it might be just a verb. My verb
lists show it in two places, but spelled exactly the same: as the Avar
(Perfect), in the 3nd person feminine, of either Piel or Pual. But if
so, what is the feminine subject of the pasuk? Noam is masculine.
Maaseh y'deinu is masculine (I think). Could it refer to an
unmentioned Shechina?

Also, the Avar surprises me. EVERY translation I've seen puts this
pasuk as a request for the future. I don't see any Vav Hahipuch. Is
the Avar/Perfect used poetically to refer to the future?

Someone suggested to me that both of these verbs might be in the
jussive form. My understanding of "Jussive" is that its not really a
verb form of its own, but that we use it to describe situations where
the Future Tense is actually a request or command, not as a statement
of future facts. This abounds when mitzvos are commanded; the pasuk
sometimes uses the Tzivuy form to command and order us, but sometimes
(to be gentle?) it uses the Atid/Future(Imperfect) and that's what we
call Jussive.

Am I close? Or is the Hebrew Jussive found in actual spelling
differences beyond the seven Binyanim that I was taught? Or maybe I'm
wrong about connecting Jussive to the future tense, and it can be done
with the past also?

My apologies for hoping that there's a simple answer to this. It
probably needs a really long answer, and one that's waaay over my
head. But whatever answers you can give will be be appreciated.

Akiva Miller
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