[Mesorah] us'ara / us'arahh

[Poppers, Michael]

Yes, that would seem to be another example (perhaps a better-known one) of the same phenomenon.  However, (a) considering what RMKornfeld writes (see Section II of http://www.dafyomi.co.il/parsha/pesach3.htm ), he would likely disagree with my proposal and, because of the ultimate accent on 13:4's word, would not classify "s'arah" as a masculine version of "sei'ar"; and also see (b) what RMKlarberg (yup, two RMKs in one email :)) says at the end of http://www.torahsearch.com/page.cfm/1514 and (c) Gesenius §80 (http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Gesenius%27_Hebrew_Grammar/80 ). (a), (b), (c) -- three strikes, and I'm back in the dugout....

-----Original Message-----
From: R. Rich Wolpoe [mailto:rabbirichwolpoe at gmail.com] 
Sent: Tuesday, April 24, 2012 5:06 PM
To: Poppers, Michael; Mesorah List
Subject: Re: [Mesorah] us'ara / us'arahh


RMO
«I would say that "sei'ar" is masculine, even in its qamatz-heih form (13:4), and 13:20's "us'arahh" really is "sei'ar shel <feminine noun>."

IIUC, then the 2 forms of sei'ar would match the 2 forms of  Layil/Laylah where both forms are also masculine.

Shalom and Regards,      RRW