[Mesorah] karva shenas hasheva

[Benjamin M. Kandel]

Sort of.  According to the Radak's rules of shva, a shva after a kametz
gadol is a shva na, and after a kametz katan is a shva nach.  If this is
true, then it would follow that putting a shva na under "karva" would
imply that the first kametz is gadol (and that the word is a regular
verb), whereas putting a shva nach there would imply that the word is
"korva", which would presumably be a noun.

In any case, it is pretty clear that within the system of the baalei
mesorah from Teveriah, there is no shva na after a tenua "gedola".  Ibn
Ezra says so explicitly in Tzachos (I can get the exact reference if
you're interested), and so does Ben Asher himself (in Dikdukei HaTeamim). 
The rule of having a shva na after a tenua gedola was first mentioned by
Radak and adopted by many later grammarians, but earlier ba'alei dikduk
don't mention it.

Kol tuv

Ben Kandel

> Someone told me that saying a sheva nach in the first word of the above
> phrase changes the meaning.  Can someone affirm+explain/refute?  Thanks.
>
> Gershon
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