[Mesorah] Kosht

[Seth Mandel]

See my rules of reading Hebrew, which I posted in this forum a couple of years ago.  The Tiberian rules of  vocalization (as opposed to the "Palestinian" or Babylonian) require a vowel of some sort under/over every consonantal letter that is pronounced.  The absence of a vowel (including the shva sign) would indicate that the consonantal letter is not pronounced.  That is the way the Tiberian punctuation indicates silent letters, such as the sin in Yissokhor or the yod in the third person masculine singular pronominal ending for plural nouns (which is not pronounced -oyw) or the second person masculine singular pronominal ending for plural nouns (which is not pronounced -eikho).
Seth Mandel> Date: Thu, 16 Oct 2008 19:21:18 -0400> From: zev at sero.name> To: mesorah at aishdas.org> Subject: Re: [Mesorah] Kosht> > kennethgmiller at juno.com wrote:> > > Thanks. But I just thought of another question: Why does the tes have> > a sh'va?> > > > My understanding is that almost every word ends with an implicit shva> > nach which we don't bother to write. Occasional words end a little> > differently, but the only time we both to show the final shva nach is> > if the last letter was a khaf. Why are we putting a shva nach on a> > final tes in this case?> > Well, the machzor is easy to explain -- it's copying the pasuk.> But that just kicks the question to the pasuk: why does it have a shva?> My guess is that it's to draw attention to the unusual form of the word,> so that you don't think the shva under the shin should be a segol, as in> "nes lehitnoses mipnei koshet" (Tehilim 60:4).> > > -- > Zev Sero Something has gone seriously awry with this Court's> zev at sero.name interpretation of the Constitution.> - Clarence Thomas> _______________________________________________> Mesorah mailing list> Mesorah at lists.aishdas.org> http://lists.aishdas.org/listinfo.cgi/mesorah-aishdas.org
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