[Mesorah] RZ"H

[Michael Poppers]

RGD wrote:
> I believe it was stated here some time ago that according to Rav Zalman
Henna, there is no difference in pronunciation between a sheva nah and a
nach, perhaps specifically a sheva that is nah due to a tenua kala.  Can
someone enlighten me? <
I believe you're referring to what RZH wrote (scan available [thanks to a 
Yahoo! Leining listmember] at http://tinyurl.com/2w987l -- you may have to 
be a Yahoo! Leining or at least a Yahoo! Groups member -- or from me by 
request) in the intro. to his Siddur commentary.  Dr. M. Klarberg wrote re 
it (see http://torahsearch.com/page.cfm/3835 or 
http://www.shemayisrael.co.il/parsha/klarberg/archives/bechukosai63.htm), 
"In his introduction to Sha'arei Tefilla, his largely grammatical 
commentary on the Siddur, he writes that there is no difference between 
the pronunciation of Sheva Na and Sheva Nach; the difference between them 
is whether they are pronounced before a vowel (i.e. to start a syllable) 
or after it (i.e. to conclude the syllable)."

Gut Purim and all the best from
Michael Poppers * Elizabeth, NJ, USA
-------------- next part --------------
An HTML attachment was scrubbed...
URL: <http://lists.aishdas.org/pipermail/mesorah-aishdas.org/attachments/20080319/cac3a8fc/attachment-0021.htm>