[Mesorah] 2 q on shva

[Noah Witty]

When nun peshuta gets a komatz, it's usually a quasi kri u'khsiv of a 
verb deviating from the full form of the 2nd or 3rd person plural 
feminine or fem. plural command.  So in that sense, it's really a nun 
kefufa.  Thus, when it fails to receive a sheva, that's because it 
really is a end-nun, and last letters do not usually receive any sheva 
unless it is penultimate letter is a sheva as well, whether noun or 
verb, e.g. kosht, va-shavt.

Without some research, I can't tell whether that sheva is na or nakh, 
but perhaps the above goes some way toward addressing Avi's other query 
about the lack of a vowelized last letter.  BTW, I don't know why his 
acquaintance is picking on Hebrew. Lots of words in English and French 
dont't have the last letter pronounced, and in French the very suffix 
letter(s) that in verbs indicate person, gender and number are 
frequently silent.

WRT kaf sofit and a komatz, the word yad-cha appears with a kaf kefufa 
and followed by a heh, as well as with a kaf peshuta alone.

Maybe some of this has to do with the motza ha-peh for the menatzpach . 
 . .

Micha Berger wrote:
> On Mon, Jul 28, 2008 at 09:45:32AM +0300, אברהם פרנס wrote:
> : 1) Why is it that only on a kaf sofit there is a shva? Why not in
> : a peh sofit for example? The word erech has a shva at the end while
> : "aleph" does not.
>
> I am only bothered by the difference between khaf peshutah and nun
> peshutah. A fei peshutah never takes a vowel, so in that sense it differs
> from a khaf peshutah. However, since a nun peshutah can get a qamatz,
> why doesn't it get a sheva when it doesn't?
>
> Tir'u baTov!
> -Micha
>
>   


No virus found in this outgoing message.
Checked by AVG - http://www.avg.com 
Version: 8.0.138 / Virus Database: 270.5.6/1576 - Release Date: 7/27/2008 4:16 PM