[Mesorah] Trop question

[D&E-H Bannett]

The truth is I don't get the question.  One can ask on any 
words, "why these t'amim?".

Despite the lack of understanding, I'll make a comment based 
on a guess that the question is why the sentence starts with 
three meshar'tim for  the geresh (azla) which is the first 
mafsik.

Let's first discount the tunes which we use for the t'amim 
because they might distort the original intent.

The first four words are joined in one phrase ending with 
the first ta'am mafsik.

However, there is also a logical connection between t'yashim 
and the two following words which are its adjectives.  For 
that reason a geresh is used because it is a shlishi, i.e., 
one of the weakest mafsikim. So, even though there is a 
slight pause after tyashim there is still quite a connection 
to the following two words after which there is a revia', a 
mishneh, i.e., a larger pause.

There is no pause in the first four words of the sentence 
because there is no sense to pause between these words.

But then comes the problem of  baa'lei kria who don't 
differentiate between a tlisha gedola, a shlishi, and the 
tlisha ketana, a mechaber.  They make the t'lisha k'tana 
into a fancy tune almost no different from the tune of the 
gedola and stop after it despite that it hinders 
understanding of the meaning of the words.

Who, in his right mind, when talking or writing about "that 
day" would separate   "that" from "day" by a pause or comma? 
But that is what many bal-koires do.

And that is what I think caused your question. You probably 
heard someone read, "vayasar bayom" and then stop. He then 
continued with a new phrase "hahu et hat'yashim" which makes 
no more sense than the previous phrase.

Oh, some will say, but that is our tradition!


bivrakha,

David