[Mesorah] Shalsheleth

Noah Witty nwitty at optonline.net
Mon Dec 1 16:10:44 PST 2008


Joshua Meisner wrote:
> On Thu, Nov 27, 2008 at 9:33 PM, David J Havin <djhavin at iprimus.com.au>wrote:
>
>   
>>  Why, in each of the seven instances in the *Tanach*, does the *Shalsheleth
>> *appear on the first word of the sentence?
>>
>>     
> The shalsheles serves a role similar to that of a zakeif gadol; much as the
> zakeif gadol replaces the zakeif katon within a one-word secondary 
this I get because the zakeif gadol is frequently in mid-passuk
> division
> of a passuk that has no room for a preceding pashta, y'tiv, or munach
> (unless said one word is very short or very long), so, too, the shalsheles
> replaces the segol 
What's your source? Also, how would one know that the it is a segol that 
the shalsheles is replacing? I think shalsheles is followed each time by 
a pesik (vertical line), which is not the case with a segol.
> within a one-word secondary division 
this I _don't_ get: what makes the word on which the shalsheles is 
installed "a secondary division"?
> that has no room for
> a preceding zarka.  Since segol is only used at the head 
Do you mean "end"?
> of a chain of
> secondary phrases (each of which, save the last, is concluded by a zakeif),
> it follows logically that shalsheles would only be used as a ta'am in a
> one-word initial secondary phrase, making it the first word in the passuk.
>
> - Josh
>   
Noach Witty
>   
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