<html><head></head><body>Was there a Jewish community in Israel between the time of the Yerushalmi and when "they" returned to Israel. Because if there was, each returnee would have to adopt the Minhag Hamakom the moment he hit an inhabited city.<br><br>In contrast, there were no religious Jews left in England after the expulsion, so the newcomers can (and should) follow their old minhagim.<br><br>The same would presumably apply when Jews started coming back to Spain a few decades back, and unlike Moroccans in France a few decades before.<br><br>But, as I wrote before, it seems that the Minhag is to follow whatever Minhagim you were used to, especially if you have enough landsmen to create a breakaway community.<br><br><div class="gmail_quote">On October 3, 2018 2:51:19 PM PDT, Zev Sero via Avodah <avodah@lists.aishdas.org> wrote:<blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin: 0pt 0pt 0pt 0.8ex; border-left: 1px solid rgb(204, 204, 204); padding-left: 1ex;">
<pre class="k9mail">On 03/10/18 12:16, Prof. Levine via Avodah wrote:<br><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin: 0pt 0pt 1ex 0.8ex; border-left: 1px solid #729fcf; padding-left: 1ex;"><br>Why didn't those who returned to EY practice the minhagim of EY? For <br>example, why didn't they go back to the 3.5 year cycle of reading the <br>Torah?<br></blockquote><br>Why should they have? Even if they were fully aware of the minhagim of <br>the previous community that used once upon a time to exist where they <br>now settled, why would they be bound by them? In what way were those <br>minhagim superior to their own? When Spanish-Portuguese Jews renewed <br>the Jewish presence in England should they have adopted the presumably <br>French minhagim that English Jews practiced between 1090 and 1290?<br></pre></blockquote></div></body></html>